J. W. Mason

 

Recent Posts by J. W. Mason

  • How Households Can Have Higher Debt Without Borrowing More

    Feb 23, 2012J. W. Mason

    money-question-150New research shows that conservatives and liberals may both be missing the point when trying to explain rising levels of leverage.

    money-question-150New research shows that conservatives and liberals may both be missing the point when trying to explain rising levels of leverage.

    Changes in debt-income ratios can be attributed to primary borrowing, interest rates, growth, and inflation. In a new working paper, Arjun Jayadev and I apply such a decomposition to the evolution of U.S. household debt shows that changes in borrowing behavior has played a smaller role in the growth of household leverage than is widely believed. Rather, most of the increase can be explained in terms of "Fisher dynamics" -- the mechanical result of higher interest rates and lower inflation after 1980. Bringing leverage back down will similarly require contributions from factors other than reduced borrowing.

    It's a well-known fact that household debt has exploded in recent decades, rising from 50 percent of GDP in 1980 to over 100 percent on the eve of the Great Recession. It's also well-known that household borrowing has increased sharply over this period. Indeed, for most people -- including many economists -- these are two ways of saying the same thing. In fact, though, they are quite different claims, and while the first one is certainly true, the second is not.

    How can debt have increased if borrowing hasn't? Though this seems counterintuitive, the answer is simple. We're not interested in debt per se, but in leverage, defined as the ratio of a sector's or unit's debt to its income (or net worth). This ratio can go up because the numerator rises or because the denominator falls. Household leverage increased sharply, for instance, in 1930 and 1931 (see Figure 1). People weren’t consuming more in the Depression, but leverage rose because incomes and prices were falling faster than households could pay down debt. Similarly, changes in interest rates can change the debt burden without any shift in household consumption, because a level of spending that would be compatible with a stable debt-income ratio when interest rates are low will lead to a rising ratio when interest rates are higher.

    Figure 1:

    The role of interest rates, growth and inflation in shifting debt levels independent of borrowing is well-known when it comes to public debt. Indeed, "the least controversial equation in macroeconomics" (Hall and Sargent, 2011) is the law of motion of government debt:

    where b is the ratio of debt to GDP, d is the primary deficit as a share of GDP, i is the nominal interest rate, g is the real growth rate of GDP, and pi is inflation. As this equation makes clear, a rise in interest rates or a fall in GDP can lead to a rising debt ratio, even if a government holds the line on spending and taxes. Conversely, a government that runs deficits can still reduce debt via inflation as long as nominal interest rates remain low, as was the case in the U.S. and most other rich countries following World War II. (Abbas et al., 2011) Indeed, as Willem Buiter and others have pointed out, the entire 90-point fall in the U.S. debt-GDP ratio in the decades after World War II can be attributed to nominal interest rates below nominal growth rates. In the aggregate, the U.S. ran budget deficits over this period.

    These dynamics are familiar when it comes to public debt. As a matter of accounting, the same equation applies to household and business debt as well. But strangely, despite the example of the Depression (and Irving Fisher's famous diagnosis of rising debt burdens caused by falling prices and incomes (Fisher 1933)), no one has systematically examined what fraction of changes in private debt can be attributed to changes in interest, growth, inflation, and new borrowing. [1] In a new paper, Arjun Jayadev and I attempt to fill this gap, applying the standard decomposition of public sector debt changes to household debt in the United States for the period 1929-2011. (Mason and Jayadev, 2012.) Our findings challenge the conventional narrative about rising household debt.

    What we find is that the entire increase in household leverage after 1980 can be attributed to the non-borrowing components of the equation above -- what we call Fisher dynamics. If interest rates, growth, and inflation over 1981-2011 had remained at their average levels of the previous 30 years, then the exact same spending decisions by households would have resulted in a debt-to-income ratio in 2010 below that of 1980, as shown in Figure 2. The 1980s, in particular, were a kind of slow-motion debt-deflation, or debt-disinflation; the entire growth in debt relative to earlier periods (17 percent of household income, compared with just 3 percent in the 1970s) is due to the slower growth in nominal income as a result of falling inflation. In other words, there is no reason to think that aggregate household borrowing behavior changed after 1980. Indeed, households rescued their borrowing in the face of higher interest rates just as one would expect rational agents to. The problem is that they didn't, or couldn't, reduce borrowing fast enough to make up for the fact that after the Volcker disinflation, leverage was no longer being eroded by rising prices. In this respect, the rise in debt-income ratios in the 1980s is parallel to that of 1929-1931.

    Check out “The 99 Percent Plan,” a new Roosevelt Institute/Salon essay series on the progressive vision for the economy.

    Figure 2:

    Think of it this way: If you borrow money and your income in dollars rises by 10 percent a year (3 percent real growth, say, and 7 percent inflation) then you will find it much easier to pay off the debt when it comes due. But if you borrow the same amount and your dollar income turns out to rise at only 4 percent a year (the same real growth but only 1 percent inflation) then the payment, when it comes due, will be a larger fraction of your income. That, not increased household spending, is why debt ratios rose in the 1980s.

    Neither the 1980s nor the 1990s saw an increase in new household borrowing -- on the contrary, the household sector in the aggregate showed a primary surplus in these decades, in contrast with the primary deficits of the postwar decades. So both the conservative theory explaining increased household borrowing by shorter time horizons and a general lack of self-control, and the liberal theory explaining it by efforts of those further down the income ladder to maintain consumption standards in the face of a falling share of income, need some rethinking. Given the increased availability of credit and rising inequality, some households may well have chosen to increase spending relative to income, and those lower down the income ladder presumably did rely on borrowing to maintain consumption standards in the face of stagnant wages. But for the household sector in the aggregate, until 2000, there is no increased household borrowing to explain.

    The main results are summarized in Table 1, which shows the average contribution of each of the terms from equation 1 to the annual change in household leverage over seven periods. Positive numbers indicate factors that raised leverage, while negative numbers are factors that reduced it.

    Table 1

    Period ∆b d i g π
    1929 to 1933 0.025 -0.049 0.024 0.023 0.023
    1934 to 1945 -0.021 -0.010 0.019 -0.025 -0.008
    1946 to 1964 0.028 0.023 0.031 -0.017 -0.009
    1965 to 1980 -0.001 0.008 0.055 -0.027 -0.038
    1981 to 1999 0.014 -0.015 0.081 -0.025 -0.025
    2000 to 2006 0.050 0.033 0.080 -0.038 -0.025
    2007 to 2010 -0.020 -0.067 0.079 -0.006 -0.026

    In this table, i, g, and pi represent the contributions of those three terms to the change in leverage -- that is, the underlying value times the debt-income ratio at the start of the year. This is why the contribution of interest remains so much higher in the 2000s than before 1980, even though interest rates had fallen back down to their pre-Volcker levels by then. As can be seen from the table, leverage rose in the 1980s and 1990s after being stable in the previous 15 years, but the difference was not higher household borrowing. Rather, the whole difference is explained by higher interest costs and slower inflation.

    An important point to note in Table 1 that in the period of the housing bubble -- 2000 to 2006 -- the conventional story is right: during this period, the household sector did run very large primary deficits (averaging 3.3 percent of income), which explain the bulk of increased leverage over this period. But it doesn't explain all of it. Even in this period, about a third of the increase in debt was due to the mechanical effects of i, g, and pi. And in the following four years, households reduced consumption relative to income [2] by nearly as much as they increased it in the bubble years. But these large primary surpluses barely offset the large gap between interest and (very low) growth and inflation over these four years. In the absence of the headwind created by adverse debt dynamics, the increase in household leverage in the bubble would have been effectively reversed by 2011.

    We draw two main conclusions. First, as a historical matter, you cannot understand the changes in private sector leverage over the 20th century without explicitly accounting for debt dynamics. The tendency to treat changes in debt ratios as necessarily the result in changes in borrowing behavior obscures the most important factors in the evolution of leverage. Second, going forward, it seems unlikely that households can sustain large enough primary deficits to reduce or even stabilize leverage. Even the very large surpluses of 2006-2011 would not have brought down leverage at all in the absence of the upsurge in defaults. In the absence of large federal deficits and an improving trade balance the outcome would have been even worse, since reductions in household expenditure would have reduced aggregate income. As a practical matter it seems clear that, just as the rise in leverage was not the result of more borrowing, any reduction in leverage will not come about through less borrowing. To substantially reduce household debt will require some combination of financial repression to hold interest rates below growth rates for an extended period, and larger-scale and more systematic debt write-downs.

    [1] Growing interest in leverage has led to various qualitative attempts along these lines, such as Roxburgh et al. (2010) But to our knowledge no one has applied Equation 1 to private sector debt, as we do.

    [2] While the Flow of Funds show households paying down debt at an average rate of nearly 7 percent of income annually between 2007 and 2010, as reflected in Table 1, nearly half -- 3 percent -- of that is actually accounted for by defaults rather than reduced borrowing.

    J. W. Mason is a graduate student in economics at the University of Massachusetts, Amherst. He blogs at The Slack Wire.

    Share This

  • What's Good Enough for GE Is Good Enough for the United States

    Apr 20, 2011J. W. Mason

    downarrow-money-150If private companies with high debt-to-revenue ratios deserve an AAA rating, the U.S. government should be an even safer investment.

    downarrow-money-150If private companies with high debt-to-revenue ratios deserve an AAA rating, the U.S. government should be an even safer investment.

    S&P's threat to downgrade the US government's credit rating has been dismissed by economist-bloggers as a political intervention by bondowners and compared to "adorable children wearing their underpants outside their trousers." As far as the chances of the US someday defaulting on its debt go, the announcement has zero informational value.

    Still, it's true that federal debt held by the public has reached 60 percent of GDP, while tax revenues remain around 20 percent of GDP. 60 percent of GDP is a lot! And double, nearly triple, tax revenue! What would we call a company with outstanding debt double or even triple its revenues, and expected to keep the highest bond rating?

    We would call it General Electric. As recently as 2007, GE had an S&P rating of AAA with outstanding debt at over three time revenues.

    Or we could call it the Tennessee Valley Authority; TVA managed outstanding debt of 3.9 times revenue in the late '90s (it's since come down a bit), and S&P never downgraded its bond rating from AAA.

    Or, we could call it Hydro Quebec, with debt of over 4.5 times revenues (although, admittedly, its S&P rating is only A+). Or the natural gas and energy supplier TransCanada, with debt equal to 2.2 time revenues and an A rating from S&P. Even Transocean, which operated the Deepwater Horizon rig for BP, managed an A- rating prior to the spill, with a debt-revenue ratio similar to what the federal government has now.

    It’s free! Sign up to have the Daily Digest, a witty take on the morning’s key headlines, delivered straight to your inbox.

    Now, it's perfectly sensible for a big utility, with its high proportion of long-lived fixed capital and stable revenue streams, to carry a lot of debt. If I ran Hydro Quebec (and converting the company to a worker- and consumer-owned cooperative wasn't an option), I'd take on a lot of debt too. But here's the point. If the question is, what if the government had to fund itself like a private business, the answer isn't necessarily that it would do anything different from what it's doing now.

    In the real world, of course, there are lots of differences between the government of the United States and a private business. The federal government issues the currency that its debt is denominated in. It has effectively unlimited authority to increase taxes on the public sector. And its liabilities are the most important store of value and means of payment for the private sector. (When Alan Greenspan said that the financial system would have a real problem without holdings of federal debt, he may have been arguing in bad faith, but he wasn't wrong.) And of course, the US government is responsible for output and employment in the economy as a whole, and not just for its own balance sheet. All these differences mean that it makes sense for the US government to carry more debt than a private business. If GE or Transocean are safe bets for lenders with debt of two or three times revenue, then the federal government must be ultra ultra safe. Which, interestingly enough, is just what the bond market says.

    So perhaps we can get away from the "oooh, that's a really big number!" school of analysis of federal borrowing, and instead ask what levels of federal deficit and outstanding debt are most compatible with economic growth and financial stability. For the foreseeable future, I'd suggest the answer has a lot more to do with the role of government spending in aggregate demand, and with government debt as a risk-free asset for the private sector, than with the level of debt that's "sustainable." Because if you think there are more states of the world where TVA or GE make their payments to bondholders than where the US government does, you must be smoking something from S&P's private stash.

    J. W. Mason is a graduate student in economics at the University of Massachusetts, Amherst. He blogs at The Slack Wire.

    Share This

  • How Much Will Currency Policies Really Affect Our Economy?

    Oct 6, 2010J. W. Mason

    downarrow-money-150Does the math really add up on these potential solutions to our economic problems?

    downarrow-money-150Does the math really add up on these potential solutions to our economic problems?

    A number of economists of the liberal Keynesian persuasion have been arguing recently that dollar devaluation is an important step in moving us back toward full employment. In principle, of course, a cheaper dollar should raise US exports and lower US imports. But what's missing from many of these arguments is a concrete, quantitative analysis of how much a lower dollar would raise demand for American goods.

    In the interest of starting a discussion, here is a very rough first cut. There are four parameters to worry about, two each for imports and exports: how much a given change in the dollar moves prices in the destination country (the passthrough rate), and how much demand for traded goods responds to a change in price (the price elasticity). We can't observe these relationships directly, of course, so we have to estimate them based on historical data on trade flows and exchange rates. But once we assign values to them, it's straightforward how to calculate the effect of a given exchange rate change. And the values reported in published studies suggest that the level of the dollar is a relatively minor factor in US unemployment.

    For passthrough, estimates are quite consistent that dollar changes are passed through more or less one for one to US export prices, but considerably less to US import prices. (In other words, US exporters set prices based solely on domestic costs, but exporters to the US "price to market".) The OECD's global macro model uses a value of 0.33 for import passthrough at a two-year horizon; a simple OLS regression of changes in import prices on the trade-weighted exchange rate yields basically the same value. Estimates of import price elasticity are almost always less than unity. Here are a few: Kwack et al (2007), -0.93; Crane, Crowley and Quayyum (2007), -0.47 to -0.63; Mann and Plück (2005), -0.28; Marquez (1990), -0.63 to -0.92. (Studies that use the real exchange rate rather than import prices generally find import elasticities between -0.1 and -0.25, which is consistent with a passthrough rate of about one-third.) So a reasonable assumption for import price elasticity would be about -0.75; there is no support for a value beyond -1. Estimated export elasticities vary more widely, but most fall between -0.5 and -1.

    So let's use values near the midpoint of the published estimates. Let's assume import passthrough of 0.33, import price elasticity of -0.75, export passthrough of 1 and price elasticity of -1. And let's assume initial trade flows at their average levels of the 2000s -- imports of 15 percent of GDP and exports at 10.5 percent of GDP. Given those assumptions, what happens if the dollar falls by 20 percent? The answer is, the US trade deficit shrinks by 1.9 percent of GDP.

    That might sound like a lot. But keep in mind, these are long-run elasticities -- in general, it takes as much as two years for price movements to have their full effect on trade. And the fall in the dollar also can't happen overnight, at least not without severe disruptions to financial markets. So we are talking about an annual boost to demand of somewhere between 0.5 and 1.0 percent of GDP for two to three years. And then, of course, the stimulus ends unless the dollar keeps falling. This is less than half the size of the stimulus passed last January. (Although to be fair, increased demand for tradables should have a higher multiplier than the mix of direct spending, transfers and tax cuts that made up the Obama stimulus.) The employment effect would probably be of the same magnitude -- a reduction of the unemployment rate by between 0.5 and 1.0 points.

    Sign up for weekly ND20 highlights, mind-blowing stats, event alerts, and reading/film/music recs.

    So it's not a trivial effect, but it's also not the main thing we should be worried about if we want to get back to broadly-shared prosperity. We should remember, too, that a policy of boosting US demand by increasing net exports has costs that a policy of boosting domestic demand does not.

    And what about China? At least as often as we hear calls for a lower dollar, we hear calls for China to allow its currency to rise. How much could that help?

    Unfortunately, there aren't as many good recent studies of bilateral trade elasticities between the US and China. And the BEA's published series for Chinese import prices only goes back to 2003, which isn't enough for reliable estimates. But common sense can get us quite a ways here. In recent years, US imports from China have run around 2 percent of GDP, and US exports to China a bit under 0.5 percent. So even if we assume that (1) a change in the nominal exchange rate is reflected one for one in the real exchange rate, i.e. that it doesn't affect Chinese prices or wages at all; (2) a change in the real exchange rate is passed one for one into prices of Chinese imports in the US; (3) Chinese goods compete only with American-made goods, and not with those of other exporters; and (4) the price elasticity of US imports from China is an implausibly high 1.5; then a 20 percent appreciation of the Chinese currency only provides a boost to US demand of less than one half of one percent of GDP in total, spread out over several years.

    And of course, those are all wildly optimistic assumptions. A recent Deutsche Bank report uses an estimate of -0.6 for the exchange rate elasticity of Chinese exports. They don't give any estimates for US-China flows specifically, but given the well-established empirical fact that US imports are unusually exchange-rate inelastic, we have to assume that the number for Chinese exports to the US is substantially smaller than for Chinese exports overall. Consistent with that, my own simple error-correction model, using 1993-2010 data and the relative CPI-deflated bilateral exchange rate, gives an exchange rate elasticity of US imports from China of -0.17. If the real figure is in that range, then a Chinese appreciation of 20 percent will reduce our imports from China by just 0.03 percent of GDP -- and of course much of even that tiny demand shift will be to goods from other low-wage exporters. This last point makes a focus on the Chinese peg particularly problematic as an explanation of US unemployment. If you are talking about reducing the value of the dollar against our trading partners as a whole, any resulting shift away from imports has to be to domestic goods. But presumably the closest substitutes for Chinese imports are usually other imports, not stuff made in the USA.

    These are rough calculations and only intended to start a conversation. But it's a conversation we very much need to have. Before we launch a trade war with China for the sake of American workers, we need more concrete answers on the size of the potential gains.

    Historically-minded critics of China and other surplus countries often quote Keynes' writings from the 1930s and '40s, with their emphasis on the importance of "creditor adjustment". The implication is that it's China's responsibility to reduce its net exports. But this is a misleading reading of Keynes. In fact, his concern was only ever to ensure that no country was prevented from pursuing full employment by the need to earn foreign exchange. The US, as the supplier of the world reserve currency, cannot face a balance of payments constraint; if we fail to pursue full employment, we have no one to blame but ourselves. If Keynes were alive today, I suspect he would be telling American policymakers to forget about China and focus all their efforts on boosting US demand -- by public investment in infrastructure, by unconventional monetary stimulus, by paying people to dig holes and fill them up again if need be. Because he knew that the only reason to worry about the trade balance was to gain the freedom to pursue "a policy of an autonomous rate of interest, unimpeded by international preoccupations, and of a national investment program directed to the optimum level of domestic employment, which is twice blessed in the sense that it helps ourselves and our neighbors at the same time."

    J. W. Mason is a graduate student in economics at the University of Massachusetts, Amherst. A version of this post previously appeared at The Slack Wire.

    Share This